A standing debate with my supervisor, Max Turner, concerns 2 Cor 3:16-18. I understand the repeated kurios christologically, he doesn’t (nor does his other research student, and my friend, Volker Rabens). Now Max ‘has-probably-forgotten-more-than-I-have-ever-remembered’ Turner is certainly not the person I want to cross exegetical swords with but I am at least encouraged that my second supervisor (and ex-research student of Max) Mehrdad Fatehi (and author of my favourite WUNT title ever), has published an excellent case for the older christological consensus view against the modern emerging consensus which reads 3:17 as an exegetical comment on a loose citation from Exodus in 3:16.
However, reading Fee’s new work, Pauline Christology, I stumbled upon an encouraging piece of information. Fee, along with Max, was one of the major scholars to support the ‘emerging consensus’ that denied a christological reading of these verses in 2 Cor 3. Turning to his work on 2 Cor 3:16-18 I was thrilled to discover that Fee has now changed his mind! Yes, Max, Volker, its sackcloth and ashes time! Repent and see the light! The ‘Lord’ of 2 Cor 3:16-18, so says Fee, has a christological referent! (I always knew I was right, but some people have to learn the hard way I guess)
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So how do you understand "The Lord is the Spirit"? Vs 18's "LORD" can refer to Jesus if Paul is arguing along the same lines as Rom 8:29 with regards to image. The question in my mind becomes, why switch from Christ in v14, to Spirit in v17, back to Christ in 18? This does appear to be a rather complex passage...
True, if Fee says so, it has to be the correct interpretation...
Paul defines in vs 14 "only through Christ" is the veil taken away and then in vs 16 he says "when one turns to the Lord, the veil is removed." Therefore, Paul, is associating the two titles together both Christ and Lord. He made it clear that only Christ can remove the veil and this Christ, who is Lord, will remove it when one turns to him. Acts 2:36 is an early precedence for associating the two titles together especially in the context of an apology to Jews for these new changes. Thus the allusion in 2 Cor. 3 to Moses and veil and how the "new" covenant replaces the "old."
Thanks for your comments chaps,
I'll perhaps expand in a post why I take these verses christologically. Would be good to hear your feedback. J Clark picks up on one of the contextual matters I find important, namely the importance of 'in Christ' in v14 and its association with v.16 and 'turning to the Lord'.
You know, I was just scanning this post and for I moment I thought that the bit that says: "The ‘Lord’ of 2 Cor 3:16-18..." actually referred to Fee! I imagine that might be a common error.
:-)
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